Hi to all my Forum Friends,
Today, on Facebook, my Christian Friend, Jonathan, asked the question, "Gay marriage, is it a civil right? Or is it impeding upon religious beliefs?"
And, my response to him is:
The whole issue of Gay Rights and Same-Sex Marriage is that homosexuals, lesbians, and transgenders want the same rights as heterosexuals. They already have that. As a heterosexual male, by law I cannot marry another male -- but, I can marry any female I desire. My wife is a heterosexual female; but, by law she could not have married another female.
Why? This is the law of our nation and the law of our God. Male shall marry female; female shall marry male. That is the law for all people regardless of their sexual preferences. So, we all ARE living under the same laws. And, we all have the same rights; no civil rights violation here.
However, what the Gay Rights advocates want is to have "special laws" written just for them. If we as a nation do this -- why should the pedophile, the bestialist, and the bigamists not have their own "special laws" also? After all, they, too, are minorities. So, is telling a pedophile that he/she cannot marry a child -- or telling a bestialist he/she cannot marry his/her pet animal -- or telling a man or woman that they cannot have multiple spouses -- a civil rights violation?
Shouldn't these minorities have the right to follow their sexual preferences? After all, if we write "special laws" to allow two people of the same gender, i.e., same sex to marry -- should we punish the pedophile, the bestialist, the bigamist by not allowing them to marry according to their own personal sexual desires? Isn't that their civil right, also?
This may sound gross to most people; but, in the world of people who practice these aberrations, they feel it is as normal as same-sex marriage or heterosexual marriage. Where do we draw the line?
God already has done this and He gave us a clear definition of marriage when He performed the very first marriage uniting Adam and Eve. "And, the Lord God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, AND brought her to the man. . . For this cause a man shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and they shall become one flesh" (Genesis 2:22-25). "And God blessed them, and said to them, 'Be fruitful and multiply, and fill the earth. . ." (Genesis 1:28).
What does it mean when the Bible tells us "and they shall become one flesh"? Most people relate this to the union of the man and the woman. Personally, the way I read this is that "they shall produce one flesh -- a child" -- the one flesh which is a product of their sexual union. No same-sex marriage or sexual union can do this.
This was the very first marriage, officiated by God Himself -- and this set the standard for marriage. There is no other standard; regardless of how society may want to set its norms above those of God.
God bless, have a wonderful, blessed day,